How did medieval dependent peasants differ from Roman slaves? Why did they differ in their attitude to their work?

Slaves in ancient Rome were powerless, they were essentially the property of their masters. They were often used for the most difficult tasks (building roads, working in mines, etc.) They also did not have their own property, no house, no land.

Peasants in medieval Europe were economically dependent on their feudal lord. So they worked on the land of the feudal lord, but had their own house and their own family. They were also not a commodity.



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