How did the position of the French peasants differ from that of the Russians?

The difference between the French peasants and the Russians (if we consider the period from the Middle Ages to 1861) is that the Russian peasants were completely dependent on the landlords, both personally and economically. Serfdom existed in Russia until the middle of the 19th century, and the peasants were legally the property of the landowner. The French didn’t have that.



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